So I come to the LXX of Joshua 10:19 and see:
ὑμεῖς δὲ μὴ ἑστήκατε καταδιώκοντες ὀπίσω τῶν ἐχθρῶν ὑμῶν.
I initially understood ἑστήκατε as a perfect indicative, which is exactly what it looks like. But then I saw that the NETS translates the word as an imperative, which actually makes significantly more sense in context. So then I began looking for information about perfect imperatives. I know, now, that on the rare occasion that they do occur they tend to be formed as periphrastics. But I also already knew there is a non-periphrastic in Ephesians 5:5: ἴστε. So, my question is this: when imperatives are formed via inflection, do they look like indicatives like we have with other periphrastics?
I’ve dug through Robertson as well as Moulton & Howard, but to no avail.
UPDATE: It is an imperative: μὴ, which I should have noticed myself. The B-Greek list is awesome, both for real questions as well as for when my brain isn’t functioning.